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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 16.06.2025 14:38

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Are vampires real?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why do women need to wear bras, in spite of the fact that the breasts are an integral part of the body?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

This is a real question: Why do a lot of men/boys hate (yes, hate) women that voice their criteria in choosing a partner? Even when the criteria is sane and responsible. Besides it being, sadly, an effective mating strategy, why does it exist?

There's no rule.